Re: Is "GAY MARRIAGE" valid because such may have existed in the past?
Von: Howard Brazee (howard@brazee.net) [Profil]
Datum: 05.07.2008 04:46
Message-ID: <c0ot64t9oo64mp7lerjqdm63tnfl3a6vgr@4ax.com>
Newsgroup: alt.politics.republicans alt.christnet alt.politics.homosexualityrec.arts.movies.past-films
Datum: 05.07.2008 04:46
Message-ID: <c0ot64t9oo64mp7lerjqdm63tnfl3a6vgr@4ax.com>
Newsgroup: alt.politics.republicans alt.christnet alt.politics.homosexualityrec.arts.movies.past-films
On Fri, 4 Jul 2008 11:04:13 -0700 (PDT), Emerson Wainwright <emersonwainwright@gmx.com> wrote: >> Some gay agenda-ists say "gay marriage" is valid because such was >> allowed in the past. > >They would be presenting a fallacy known as an appeal to tradition, >just as YOU would be if you said that historically same-sex marriage >was not allowed and therefore should not be allowed today. Marriage had a much bigger change when divorce was allowed. That change impacted the very basis of marriage and child rearing. Accepting gay marriages is not nearly as traumatic on existing marriages and child rearing as accepting divorce was. The big difference is that we're used to divorce now.[ Auf dieses Posting antworten ]
Antworten
- Emerson Wainwright (05.07.2008 19:51)
- Howard Brazee (05.07.2008 20:25)
