missing fundamental
Von: Robert Adams (robert.adams@analog.com) [Profil]
Datum: 03.07.2009 19:10
Message-ID: <fe1d017e-5b6b-4ee1-bc7f-da396ae8290f@b15g2000yqd.googlegroups.com>
Newsgroup: alt.sci.physics.acoustics
Datum: 03.07.2009 19:10
Message-ID: <fe1d017e-5b6b-4ee1-bc7f-da396ae8290f@b15g2000yqd.googlegroups.com>
Newsgroup: alt.sci.physics.acoustics
The ear has a characteristic that if you apply a series of harmonically- related tones but leave out the fundamental, the brain will fill it in for you; in other words, if you mix 50Hz, 75Hz, and 100Hz together you will perceive the missing fundamental at 25 Hz. Many bass-enhancement algorithms use this trick (although one has to question what happens in the case where the bass energy is not single-frequency!). What I would like to know is how far up in frequency this effect occurs. It seems as if the ear transitions from waveform mode at low frequencies to envelope mode at higher frequencies, so it seems doubtful that the missing fundamental effect still occurs at higher frequencies. For example, if I mix 2Hz, 3KHz and 4 KHz do I hear 1 KHz? Thanks for any replies! Bob Adams[ Auf dieses Posting antworten ]
Antworten
- Ethan Winer (04.07.2009 18:01)
- Jens Rodrigo (04.07.2009 19:17)
- Ethan Winer (05.07.2009 19:06)
- Salmon Egg (05.07.2009 02:05)
- answerman (05.07.2009 02:30)
- Salmon Egg (05.07.2009 20:42)
- answerman (07.07.2009 01:25)
